Green Bay @ Chicago Fumble call
Maybe you guys more clued in to the rules can help me out on this one. The ruling was a fumble and the defender never touched the ball, so how did it end up several yards downfield? Obviously Rogers "threw" the ball downfield. Could have been called an incomplete pass, but a fumble was ruled. Is it not illegal for Rogers to advance a fumble, a la the infamous "Fumblerooski", towards his goal? The replay clearly shows that Rogers "threw" the ball and the defender never touched it. And it wasn't as if he got clobbered and the ball was knocked out of his hands either. Just wondering what take you guys have.